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Neurophysiology

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chapter 2

B.sleep

1.sleep–wake cycles occur in a circadian rhythm, with a period of about 24 hours. The circadian periodicity is thought to be driven by the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus, which receives input from the retina.

2.rapid eye movement (rem) sleep occurs every 90 minutes.

During REM sleep, the eeg resembles that of a person who is awake or in stage 1 nonREM sleep.

Most dreams occur during REM sleep.

REM sleep is characterized by eye movements, loss of muscle tone, pupillary constriction, and penile erection.

Use of benzodiazepines and increasing age decrease the duration of REM sleep.

c.Language

Information is transferred between the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex through the corpus callosum.

The right hemisphere is dominant in facial expression, intonation, body language, and spatial tasks.

The left hemisphere is usually dominant with respect to language, even in left-handed people. Lesions of the left hemisphere cause aphasia.

1.Damage to Wernicke area causes sensory aphasia, in which there is difficulty understanding written or spoken language.

2.Damage to Broca area causes motor aphasia, in which speech and writing are affected, but understanding is intact.

D.Learning and memory

short-term memory involves synaptic changes.

Long-term memory involves structural changes in the nervous system and is more stable.

Bilateral lesions of the hippocampus block the ability to form new long-term memories.

v. BLooD–BrAIn BArrIer AnD cereBrosPInAL FLuID (csF)

A.Anatomy of the blood–brain barrier

It is the barrier between cerebral capillary blood and the CSF. CSF fills the ventricles and the subarachnoid space.

It consists of the endothelial cells of the cerebral capillaries and the choroid plexus epithelium.

B.Formation of csF by the choroid plexus epithelium

Lipid-soluble substances (CO2 and O2) and H2O freely cross the blood–brain barrier and equilibrate between blood and CSE.

Other substances are transported by carriers in the choroid plexus epithelium. They may be secreted from blood into the CSF or absorbed from the CSF into blood.

Protein and cholesterol are excluded from the CSF because of their large molecular size.

The composition of CSF is approximately the same as that of the interstitial fluid of the brain but differs significantly from blood (Table 2.9).

CSF can be sampled with a lumbar puncture.

c.Functions of the blood–brain barrier

1.It maintains a constant environment for neurons in the CNS and protects the brain from endogenous or exogenous toxins.

2.It prevents the escape of neurotransmitters from their functional sites in the CNS into the general circulation.


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Brs Physiology

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

t a b l e

2.9

Comparison of Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)

 

 

 

 

and Blood Concentrations

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

csF ª Blood

 

csF < Blood

csF > Blood

 

 

Na+

 

K+

Mg2+

 

 

Cl

 

Ca2+

Creatinine

 

 

HCO3

 

Glucose

 

 

 

Osmolarity

 

Cholesterol*

 

 

 

 

 

Protein*

 

*Negligible concentration in CSF.

3.Drugs penetrate the blood–brain barrier to varying degrees. For example, nonionized (lipid-soluble) drugs cross more readily than ionized (water-soluble) drugs.

Inflammation, irradiation, and tumors may destroy the blood–brain barrier and permit entry into the brain of substances that are usually excluded (e.g., antibiotics, radiolabeled markers).

vI. temPerAture reguLAtIon

A.sources of heat gain and heat loss from the body

1.Heat-generating mechanisms—response to cold

a.thyroid hormone increases metabolic rate and heat production by stimulating Na+, K+- adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase).

b.cold temperatures activate the sympathetic nervous system and, via activation of β receptors in brown fat, increase metabolic rate and heat production.

c.shivering is the most potent mechanism for increasing heat production.

Cold temperatures activate the shivering response, which is orchestrated by the posterior hypothalamus.

α-Motoneurons and γ-motoneurons are activated, causing contraction of skeletal muscle and heat production.

2.Heat-loss mechanisms—response to heat

a.Heat loss by radiation and convection increases when the ambient temperature increases.

The response is orchestrated by the anterior hypothalamus.

Increases in temperature cause a decrease in sympathetic tone to cutaneous blood vessels, increasing blood flow through the arterioles and increasing arteriovenous shunting of blood to the venous plexus near the surface of the skin. Shunting of warm blood to the surface of the skin increases heat loss by radiation and convection.

b.Heat loss by evaporation depends on the activity of sweat glands, which are under sympathetic muscarinic control.

B.Hypothalamic set point for body temperature

1.temperature sensors on the skin and in the hypothalamus “read” the core temperature and relay this information to the anterior hypothalamus.

2.the anterior hypothalamus compares the detected core temperature to the set-point temperature.

a.If the core temperature is below the set point, heat-generating mechanisms (e.g., increased metabolism, shivering, vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels) are activated by the posterior hypothalamus.


 

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b.If the core temperature is above the set point, mechanisms for heat loss (e.g., vasodilation of the cutaneous blood vessels, increased sympathetic outflow to the sweat glands) are activated by the anterior hypothalamus.

3.Pyrogens increase the set-point temperature. Core temperature will be recognized as lower than the new set-point temperature by the anterior hypothalamus. As a result, heatgenerating mechanisms (e.g., shivering) will be initiated.

c.Fever

1.Pyrogens increase the production of interleukin-1 (IL-1) in phagocytic cells.

IL-1 acts on the anterior hypothalamus to increase the production of prostaglandins.

Prostaglandins increase the set-point temperature, setting in motion the heat-generating mechanisms that increase body temperature and produce fever.

2.Aspirin reduces fever by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, thereby inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Therefore, aspirin decreases the set-point temperature. In response, mechanisms that cause heat loss (e.g., sweating, vasodilation) are activated.

3.steroids reduce fever by blocking the release of arachidonic acid from brain phospholipids, thereby preventing the production of prostaglandins.

D.Heat exhaustion and heat stroke

1.Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive sweating. As a result, blood volume and arterial blood pressure decrease and syncope (fainting) occurs.

2.Heat stroke occurs when body temperature increases to the point of tissue damage. The normal response to increased ambient temperature (sweating) is impaired, and core temperature increases further.

e.Hypothermia

results when the ambient temperature is so low that heat-generating mechanisms (e.g., shivering, metabolism) cannot adequately maintain core temperature near the set point.

F.malignant hyperthermia

is caused in susceptible individuals by inhalation anesthetics.

is characterized by a massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeletal muscle, which causes a rapid rise in body temperature.

Review Test

1. Which autonomic receptor is blocked by hexamethonium at the ganglia, but not at the neuromuscular junction?

(A)Adrenergic α receptors

(B)Adrenergic β1 receptors

(c) Adrenergic β2 receptors

(D)Cholinergic muscarinic receptors

(e) Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

2. A 66-year-old man with chronic hypertension is treated with prazosin by his physician. The treatment successfully decreases his blood pressure to within the normal range. What is the mechanism of the drug’s action?

(A)Inhibition of β1 receptors in the sinoatrial (SA) node

(B)Inhibition of β2 receptors in the SA node

(c) Stimulation of muscarinic receptors in the SA node

(D)Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the

SA node

(e) Inhibition of β1 receptors in ventricular muscle

(F)Stimulation of β1 receptors in ventricular muscle

(g) Inhibition of α1 receptors in ventricular muscle

(H)Stimulation of α1 receptors in the SA node

(I)Inhibition of α1 receptors in the SA node

(J)Inhibition of α1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle

(K)Stimulation of α1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle

(L)Stimulation of α2 receptors on vascular smooth muscle

3. Which of the following responses is mediated by parasympathetic muscarinic receptors?

(A)Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

(B)Erection

(c) Ejaculation

(D)Constriction of gastrointestinal (GI) sphincters

(e) Increased cardiac contractility

58

4. Which of the following is a property of C fibers?

(A)Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type

(B)Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber type

(c) Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles

(D)Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon organs

(e)Are preganglionic autonomic fibers

5.When compared with the cones of the retina, the rods

(A)are more sensitive to low-intensity light

(B)adapt to darkness before the cones

(c)are most highly concentrated on the fovea

(D) are primarily involved in color vision

6. Which of the following statements best describes the basilar membrane of the organ of Corti?

(A)The apex responds better to low frequencies than the base does

(B)The base is wider than the apex

(c)The base is more compliant than the apex

(D)High frequencies produce maximal displacement of the basilar membrane near the helicotrema

(e)The apex is relatively stiff compared to the base

7. Which of the following is a feature of the sympathetic, but not the parasympathetic nervous system?

(A)Ganglia located in the effector organs

(B)Long preganglionic neurons

(c)Preganglionic neurons release norepinephrine

(D)Preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine (ACh)

(e)Preganglionic neurons originate in the thoracolumbar spinal cord

(F)Postganglionic neurons synapse on effector organs

(g)Postganglionic neurons release epinephrine

(H) Postganglionic neurons release ACh


8.  Which autonomic receptor mediates an increase in heart rate?

(A)  Adrenergic α receptors

(B)  Adrenergic β1 receptors

(C)  Adrenergic β2 receptors

(D)  Cholinergic muscarinic receptors

(E)  Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

9.  Cutting which structure on the left side causes total blindness in the left eye?

(A)  Optic nerve

(B)  Optic chiasm

(C)  Optic tract

(D)  Geniculocalcarine tract

10.  Which reflex is responsible for monosynaptic excitation of ipsilateral homonymous muscle?

(A)  Stretch reflex (myotatic)

(B)  Golgi tendon reflex (inverse myotatic)

(C)  Flexor withdrawal reflex

(D)  Subliminal occlusion reflex

11.  Which type of cell in the visual cortex responds best to a moving bar of light?

(A)  Simple

(B)  Complex

(C)  Hypercomplex

(D)  Bipolar

(E)  Ganglion

12.  Administration of which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a 10-year-old child with a history of asthma?

(A)  Albuterol

(B)  Epinephrine

(C)  Isoproterenol

(D)  Norepinephrine

(E)  Propranolol

13.  Which adrenergic receptor produces its stimulatory effects by the formation of inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) and an increase in intracellular [Ca2+]?

(A)  α1 Receptors

(B)  α2 Receptors

(C)  β1 Receptors

(D)  β2 Receptors

(E)  Muscarinic receptors

(F)  Nicotinic receptors

14.  The excessive muscle tone produced in decerebrate rigidity can be reversed by

(A)  stimulation of group la afferents

(B)  cutting the dorsal roots

 

  Neurophysiology

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  Chapter 2 

(C)  transection of cerebellar connections to the lateral vestibular nucleus

(D)  stimulation of α-motoneurons

(E)  stimulation of γ-motoneurons

15.  Which of the following parts of the body has cortical motoneurons with the largest representation on the primary motor cortex (area 4)?

(A)  Shoulder

(B)  Ankle

(C)  Fingers

(D)  Elbow

(E)  Knee

16.  Which autonomic receptor mediates secretion of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla?

(A)  Adrenergic α receptors

(B)  Adrenergic β1 receptors

(C)  Adrenergic β2 receptors

(D)  Cholinergic muscarinic receptors

(E)  Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

17.  Cutting which structure on the right side causes blindness in the temporal field of the left eye and the nasal field of the right eye?

(A)  Optic nerve

(B)  Optic chiasm

(C)  Optic tract

(D)  Geniculocalcarine tract

18.  A ballet dancer spins to the left. During the spin, her eyes snap quickly to the left. This fast eye movement is

(A)  nystagmus

(B)  postrotatory nystagmus

(C)  ataxia

(D)  aphasia

19.  Which of the following has a much lower concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) than in cerebral capillary blood?

(A)  Na+

(B)  K+

(C)  Osmolarity

(D)  Protein

(E)  Mg2+

20.  Which of the following autonomic drugs acts by stimulating adenylate cyclase?

(A)  Atropine

(B)  Clonidine

(C)  Curare

(D)  Norepinephrine


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BRS Physiology

(E)  Phentolamine

(F)  Phenylephrine

(G)  Propranolol

21.  Which of the following is a step in photoreception in the rods?

(A)  Light converts all-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal

(B)  Metarhodopsin II activates transducin

(C)  Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels increase

(D)  Rods depolarize

(E)  Glutamate release increases

22.  Pathogens that produce fever cause

(A)  decreased production of interleukin-1 (IL-1)

(B)  decreased set-point temperature in the hypothalamus

(C)  shivering

(D)  vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin

23.  Which of the following statements about the olfactory system is true?

(A)  The receptor cells are neurons

(B)  The receptor cells are sloughed off and are not replaced

(C)  Axons of cranial nerve (CN) I are A-delta fibers

(D)  Axons from receptor cells synapse in the prepiriform cortex

(E)  Fractures of the cribriform plate can cause inability to detect ammonia

24.  A lesion of the chorda tympani nerve would most likely result in

(A)  impaired olfactory function

(B)  impaired vestibular function

(C)  impaired auditory function

(D)  impaired taste function

(E)  nerve deafness

25.  Which of the following would produce maximum excitation of the hair cells in the right horizontal semicircular canal?

(A)  Hyperpolarization of the hair cells

(B)  Bending the stereocilia away from the kinocilia

(C)  Rapid ascent in an elevator

(D)  Rotating the head to the right

26.  The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesia) is associated with lesions of the

(A)  premotor cortex

(B)  motor cortex

(C)  cerebellum

(D)  substantia nigra

(E)  medulla

27.  Which autonomic receptor is activated by low concentrations of epinephrine released from the adrenal medulla and causes vasodilation?

(A)  Adrenergic α receptors

(B)  Adrenergic β1 receptors

(C)  Adrenergic β2 receptors

(D)  Cholinergic muscarinic receptors

(E)  Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

28.  Complete transection of the spinal cord at the level of T1 would most likely result in

(A)  temporary loss of stretch reflexes below the lesion

(B)  temporary loss of conscious proprioception below the lesion

(C)  permanent loss of voluntary control of movement above the lesion

(D)  permanent loss of consciousness above the lesion

29.  Sensory receptor potentials

(A)  are action potentials

(B)  always bring the membrane potential of a receptor cell toward threshold

(C)  always bring the membrane potential of a receptor cell away from threshold

(D)  are graded in size, depending on

stimulus intensity

(E)  are all-or-none

30.  Cutting which structure causes blindness in the temporal fields of the left and right eyes?

(A)  Optic nerve

(B)  Optic chiasm

(C)  Optic tract

(D)  Geniculocalcarine tract

31.  Which of the following structures has a primary function to coordinate rate, range, force, and direction of movement?

(A)  Primary motor cortex

(B)  Premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortex

(C)  Prefrontal cortex

(D)  Basal ganglia

(E)  Cerebellum